Archive for December 2016

When one team member advises another team member that "your behavior is crossing the line in terms of our expectations for workplace civility," she is exercising a form of ________ control over the other person's inappropriate behaviors.

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When one team member advises another team member that "your behavior is crossing the line in terms of our expectations for workplace civility," she is exercising a form of ________ control over the other person's inappropriate behaviors.





(a) clan
(b) market
(c) internal
(d) preliminary








Answer: A

If an organization's top management establishes a target of increasing new hires of minority and female candidates by 15% in the next six months, this is an example of a/an ____________ standard for control purposes.

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If an organization's top management establishes a target of increasing new hires of minority and female candidates by 15% in the next six months, this is an example of a/an ____________ standard for control purposes.




(a) input
(b) output
(c) clan
(d) market









Answer: B

A team leader is not living up to the concept of MBO if he or she ____________.

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A team leader is not living up to the concept of MBO if he or she ____________.






(a) sets performance objectives for individual team members
(b) stays in touch and tries to support team members in their work
(c) jointly reviews performance results wiTheach team member
(d) keeps a written record of performance objectives for team members








Answer: A

Management by exception means ____________.

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Management by exception means ____________.


(a) managing only when necessary
(b) focusing attention where the need for action is greatest
(c) the same thing as concurrent control
(d) the same thing as just-in-time delivery








Answer: B

When an automobile manufacturer is careful to purchase only the highest-quality components for use in production, this is an example of an attempt to ensure high performance through ____________ control.

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When an automobile manufacturer is careful to purchase only the highest-quality components for use in production, this is an example of an attempt to ensure high performance through ____________ control.




(a) concurrent
(b) statistical
(c) inventory
(d) feedforward







Answer: D

When a soccer coach tells her players at the end of a losing game, "You did well in staying with our game plan," she is using a/an ____________ as a measure of performance.

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When a soccer coach tells her players at the end of a losing game, "You did well in staying with our game plan," she is using a/an ____________ as a measure of performance.



(a) input standard
(b) output standard
(c) historical comparison
(d) relative comparison







Answer: A

The planning process isn't complete until _________.

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The planning process isn't complete until _________.



(a) future conditions have been identified
(b) stretch goals have been set
(c) plans are implemented and results evaluated
(d) budgets commit resources to plans







Answer: C

When a manager is asked to justify a new budget proposal on the basis of projected activities rather than as an incremental adjustment to the prior year's budget, this is an example of _________.

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When a manager is asked to justify a new budget proposal on the basis of projected activities rather than as an incremental adjustment to the prior year's budget, this is an example of _________.




(a) zero-based budgeting
(b) strategic planning
(c) operational planning
(d) contingency planning





Answer: A

As a first step to help implement her firm'sstrategic plans, the CEO of a business firm would want marketing, manufacturing, and finance executives to develop clear and appropriate _________.

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As a first step to help implement her firm'sstrategic plans, the CEO of a business firm would want marketing, manufacturing, and finance executives to develop clear and appropriate _________.




(a) procedures
(b) operational plans
(c) zero-based budgets
(d) forecasts








Answer: B

The first step in the planning process is to _________.

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The first step in the planning process is to _________.




(a) decide how to get where you want to go
(b) define your objectives
(c) identify possible future conditions or scenarios
(d) act quickly to take advantage of opportunities






Answer: B

Planning is best described as the process of _________ and _________.

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Planning is best described as the process of _________ and _________.




(a) developing premises about the future; evaluating them
(b) measuring results; taking corrective action
(c) measuring past performance; targeting future performance
(d) setting objectives; deciding how to accomplish them







Answer: D

You go to your boss and ask for a pay raise. She says: "Well, let's take a look first at what you are making now." The risk you face in this situation is that your boss's decision will be biased because of _________.

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You go to your boss and ask for a pay raise. She says: "Well, let's take a look first at what you are making now." The risk you face in this situation is that your boss's decision will be biased because of _________.




(a) a framing error
(b) escalating commitment
(c) anchoring and adjustment
(d) strategic opportunism








Answer: C

A manager who decides against hiring a new employee that just graduated from Downstate University because the last person hired from there turned out to be a low performer is falling prey to _________ error.

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A manager who decides against hiring a new employee that just graduated from Downstate University because the last person hired from there turned out to be a low performer is falling prey to _________ error.


(a) availability
(b) adjustment
(c) anchoring
(d) representativeness









Answer: A

The _________ decision model views managers as making optimizing decisions, whereas the _________ decision model views them as making satisficing decisions.

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The _________ decision model views managers as making optimizing decisions, whereas the _________ decision model views them as making satisficing decisions.





(a) behavioral; judgmental heuristics
(b) classical; behavioral
(c) judgmental heuristics; ethical
(d) crisis; routine








Answer: B

When the members of a special task force are asked to develop a proposal for hitting very aggressive targets for the international sales of a new product, this problem most likely requires a _________ decision.

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When the members of a special task force are asked to develop a proposal for hitting very aggressive targets for the international sales of a new product, this problem most likely requires a _________ decision.


(a) routine
(b) programmed
(c) crisis
(d) nonprogrammed









Answer: D

What organizational stakeholder would most likely get top priority attention if a corporate board is having a serious discussion regarding how the firm could fulfill its obligations in respect to sustainable development?

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What organizational stakeholder would most likely get top priority attention if a corporate board is having a serious discussion regarding how the firm could fulfill its obligations in respect to sustainable development?




(a) Owners or investors
(b) Customers
(c) Suppliers
(d) Future generations








Answer: D

In a social responsibility audit of a business firm, positive behaviors meeting which of the following criteria would measure the highest level of commitment to socially responsible practices?

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In a social responsibility audit of a business firm, positive behaviors meeting which of the following criteria would measure the highest level of commitment to socially responsible practices?



(a) Legal—obeying the law
(b) Economic—earning a profit
(c) Discretionary—contributing to community
(d) Ethical—doing what is right









Answer: C

An amoral manager _________.

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An amoral manager _________.



(a) always acts in consideration of ethical issues
(b) chooses to behave unethically
(c) makes ethics a personal goal
(d) acts unethically but does so unintentionally







Answer: D

A proponent of the classical view of corporate social responsibility would most likely agree with which of these statements?

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A proponent of the classical view of corporate social responsibility would most likely agree with which of these statements?



(a) Social responsibility improves the public image of business.
(b) The primary responsibility of business is to maximize profits.
(c) By acting responsibly, businesses avoid government regulation.
(d) Businesses should do good while they are doing business.







Answer: B

Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?

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Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? 





A) a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2
B) a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER
C) an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated
D) a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached
E) an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization





Answer: A

Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following?

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Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? 





A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails.
B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell.
C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns.
D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size.
E) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.






Answer: C

Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind?

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Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? 






A) repressors
B) ATP
C) protein-based hormones
D) other transcription factors
E) tRNA






Answer: D

Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by

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Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by 





A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways.
B) activating translation of certain mRNAs.
C) promoting the degradation of specific mRNAs.
D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes.
E) promoting the formation of looped domains in certain regions of DNA.








Answer: D

In eukaryotes, general transcription factors

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In eukaryotes, general transcription factors 





A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes.
B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing.
D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors.
E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.




Answer: B

During DNA replication,

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During DNA replication, 




A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication.
B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied.
C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication.
D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template.
E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA is copied in the nucleus.





Answer: C

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?

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When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity? 





A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1
B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core
D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes
E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction





Answer: B

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

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If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to 





A) be replicating nearly continuously.
B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.
C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.
D) be very actively transcribed and translated.
E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.





Answer: C

Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells?

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Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? 







A) Genes are organized into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once.
B) The genes share a common intragenic sequence, and allow several activators to turn on their transcription, regardless of location.
C) The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit.
D) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes.
E) Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters.





Answer: A

There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant?

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There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant? 





A) It cannot bind to the operator.
B) It cannot make a functional repressor.
C) It cannot bind to the inducer.
D) It makes molecules that bind to one another.
E) It makes a repressor that binds CAP.







Answer: C

In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP?

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In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP? 






A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP
B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP
C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP
D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor
E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor






Answer: B

If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect to be a measurable effect?

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If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect to be a measurable effect? 





A) decreased concentration of the lac enzymes
B) increased concentration of the trp enzymes
C) decreased binding of the RNA polymerase to sugar metabolism-related promoters
D) decreased concentration of alternative sugars in the cell
E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell






Answer: E

In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?

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In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? 





A) turn off translation of their mRNA
B) alter the level of production of various enzymes
C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes
D) inactivate their mRNA molecules
E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins






Answer: B

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways?

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Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways? 





A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order
B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
D) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms
E) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome






Answer: C

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell?

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Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell? 






A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator.
B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.
C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene.
D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase.
E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator.







Answer: B

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?

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For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?






A) A corepressor must be present.
B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive.
E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.






Answer: C

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

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Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon 






A) occurs continuously in the cell.
B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
C) starts when the pathway's product is present.
D) stops when the pathway's product is present.
E) does not result in the production of enzymes.







Answer: B

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when

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The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when 






A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
B) the cyclic AMP levels are low.
C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.
D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.






Answer: D

A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in

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A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in 




A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator.
D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site.
E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure.





Answer: A

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is

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The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is 




A) permanently turned on.
B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.





Answer: E

Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

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Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?





A) a nucleotide-pair substitution
B) a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene
C) a single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron
D) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence
E) a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence





Answer: E

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

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Which of the following is not true of RNA processing? 






A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus.
B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA.
C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing.
D) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes.
E) A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus.





Answer: A

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

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The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 






A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid.
D) changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA.
E) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.







Answer: A

Which of the following is not true of a codon?

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Which of the following is not true of a codon? 





A) It consists of three nucleotides.
B) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
C) It never codes for more than one amino acid.
D) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
E) It is the basic unit of the genetic code.






Answer: D

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until

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In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 




A) the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
B) several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
C) the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
D) the DNA introns are removed from the template.
E) DNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit.







Answer: B

A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already.

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A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already.



Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide? 

A) A site
B) P site
C) E site
D) exit tunnel
E) directly to the cytosol


Answer: C


Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel through the large subunit of the ribosome? 

A) tRNA with attached lysine (#1)
B) tRNA with polypeptide (#2)
C) tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid
D) newly formed polypeptide
E) initiation and elongation factors


Answer: D

The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer.

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The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer. 



You add polynucleotide phosphorylase to a solution of adenosine triphosphate and guanosine triphosphate. How many artificial mRNA 3 nucleotide codons would be possible? 

A) 3
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 64


Answer: C



You add polynucleotide phosphorylase to a solution of ATP, GTP, and UTP. How many artificial mRNA 3 nucleotide codons would be possible? 

A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 27
E) 81


Answer: D

If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme B would be capable of growing on which of the following media?

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If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme B would be capable of growing on which of the following media?





A) minimal medium
B) minimal medium supplemented with A only
C) minimal medium supplemented with B only
D) minimal medium supplemented with C only
E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and B






Answer: D

If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media?

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If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media? 






A) minimal medium
B) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient A only
C) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient B only
D) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient C only
E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and C





Answer: C

A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

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A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation? 





A) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C
B) an accumulation of A and B and no production of C
C) an accumulation of B and no production of A and C
D) an accumulation of B and C and no production of A
E) an accumulation of C and no production of A and B







Answer: A

In order for a eukaryotic gene to be engineered into a bacterial colony to be expressed, what must be included in addition to the coding exons of the gene?

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In order for a eukaryotic gene to be engineered into a bacterial colony to be expressed, what must be included in addition to the coding exons of the gene? 





A) the introns
B) eukaryotic polymerases
C) a bacterial promoter sequence
D) eukaryotic ribosomal subunits
E) eukaryotic tRNAs





Answer: C

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication?

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In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication? 





A) It uses RNA polymerase.
B) It makes a new molecule from its 5' end to its 3' end.
C) The process is extremely fast once it is initiated.
D) The process occurs in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
E) The entire template molecule is represented in the product.





Answer: E

Which of the following is true of transcription in domain Archaea?

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Which of the following is true of transcription in domain Archaea? 





A) It is regulated in the same way as in domain Bacteria.
B) There is only one kind of RNA polymerase.
C) It is roughly simultaneous with translation.
D) Promoters are identical to those in domain Eukarya.
E) It terminates in a manner similar to bacteria.






Answer: C

Gene expression in the domain Archaea in part resembles that of bacteria and in part that of the domain Eukarya. In which way is it most like the domain Eukarya?

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Gene expression in the domain Archaea in part resembles that of bacteria and in part that of the domain Eukarya. In which way is it most like the domain Eukarya? 





A) Domain Archaea have numerous transcription factors.
B) Initiation of translation is like that of domain Eukarya.
C) There is only one RNA polymerase.
D) Transcription termination often involves attenuation.
E) Post-transcriptional splicing is like that of Eukarya.






Answer: A

Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?

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Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? 





A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic
B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein
C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide
D) a DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product
E) a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids







Answer: C

Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

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Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes? 





A) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated.
B) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.
C) Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles.
D) Translation requires antibiotic activity.
E) Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation factors.







Answer: B

Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change?

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Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change? 




A) a duplication of all or most introns
B) a large inversion whose ends are each in intergenic regions
C) a nucleotide substitution in an exon coding for a transmembrane domain
D) a single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site
E) a frameshift mutation one codon away from the 3' end of the nontemplate strand





Answer: D

Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein?

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Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein? 






A) a base substitution
B) a base deletion near the start of a gene
C) a base deletion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon
D) deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon
E) a base insertion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon







Answer: B
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