Which is the best question to ask to start the strategic management process?

Which is the best question to ask to start the strategic management process? (a) "What is our mission?" (b) "How well are we currently doing?" (c)...

Among the financial ratios often used for control purposes, Current Assets/Current Liabilities is known as the ____________.

Among the financial ratios often used for control purposes, Current Assets/Current Liabilities is known as the ____________. (a) debt ratio (b) net...

In a CPM/PERT analysis, the focus is on ____________ and the event ____________ that link them together with the finished project.

In a CPM/PERT analysis, the focus is on ____________ and the event ____________ that link them together with the finished project. (a) costs; budgets (b)...

In CPM/PERT, "CPM" stands for ____________.

In CPM/PERT, "CPM" stands for ____________. (a) critical path method (b) control planning management (c) control plan map (d) current planning matrix Answer:...

When one team member advises another team member that "your behavior is crossing the line in terms of our expectations for workplace civility," she is exercising a form of ________ control over the other person's inappropriate behaviors.

When one team member advises another team member that "your behavior is crossing the line in terms of our expectations for workplace civility," she...

When a supervisor works alongside an employee and corrects him or her immediately when a mistake is made, this is an example of ____________ control.

When a supervisor works alongside an employee and corrects him or her immediately when a mistake is made, this is an example of ____________ control. (a)...

If an organization's top management establishes a target of increasing new hires of minority and female candidates by 15% in the next six months, this is an example of a/an ____________ standard for control purposes.

If an organization's top management establishes a target of increasing new hires of minority and female candidates by 15% in the next six months, this...

A team leader is not living up to the concept of MBO if he or she ____________.

A team leader is not living up to the concept of MBO if he or she ____________. (a) sets performance objectives for individual team members (b)...

A good performance objective is written in such a way that it ____________.

A good performance objective is written in such a way that it ____________. (a) has a flexible timetable (b) is general and not too specific (c) is...

When MBO is done right, who does the review of a team member's performance accomplishments?

When MBO is done right, who does the review of a team member's performance accomplishments? (a) The team member (b) The team leader (c) Both the...

The ____________ chart graphically displays the scheduling of tasks required to complete the project.

The ____________ chart graphically displays the scheduling of tasks required to complete the project. (a) exception (b) Taylor (c) Gantt (d) after-action Answer:...

A total quality management program is most likely to be associated with ____________.

A total quality management program is most likely to be associated with ____________. (a) EOQ (b) continuous improvement (c) return on equity (d)...

Management by exception means ____________.

Management by exception means ____________. (a) managing only when necessary (b) focusing attention where the need for action is greatest (c) the same...

When an automobile manufacturer is careful to purchase only the highest-quality components for use in production, this is an example of an attempt to ensure high performance through ____________ control.

When an automobile manufacturer is careful to purchase only the highest-quality components for use in production, this is an example of an attempt to...

When a soccer coach tells her players at the end of a losing game, "You did well in staying with our game plan," she is using a/an ____________ as a measure of performance.

When a soccer coach tells her players at the end of a losing game, "You did well in staying with our game plan," she is using a/an ____________ as a...

After objectives and standards are set, what step comes next in the control process?

After objectives and standards are set, what step comes next in the control process? (a) Measure results. (b) Take corrective action. (c) Compare...

The planning process isn't complete until _________.

The planning process isn't complete until _________. (a) future conditions have been identified (b) stretch goals have been set (c) plans are implemented...

The best planning goals or objectives would have which of the following characteristics?

The best planning goals or objectives would have which of the following characteristics? (a) Easy enough so that no one fails to reach them (b)...

A marketing plan in a business firm would most likely deal with _________.

A marketing plan in a business firm would most likely deal with _________. (a) production methods and technologies (b) money and capital investments (c)...

From a time management perspective, which manager is likely to be in best control of his or her time? One who _________.

From a time management perspective, which manager is likely to be in best control of his or her time? One who _________. (a) tries to never say "no"...

If a team leader wants to tap the advantages of participatory planning, what type of decision- making method should he or she use?

If a team leader wants to tap the advantages of participatory planning, what type of decision- making method should he or she use? (a) Authority (b)...

In a hierarchy of objectives, plans at lower levels are supposed to act as _________ for accomplishing higher-level plans.

In a hierarchy of objectives, plans at lower levels are supposed to act as _________ for accomplishing higher-level plans. (a) means (b) ends (c)...

When managers use benchmarking in the planning process, they usually try to _________.

When managers use benchmarking in the planning process, they usually try to _________. (a) set up flexible budgets (b) identify best practices used...

One of the expected benefits of participatory planning is _________.

One of the expected benefits of participatory planning is _________. (a) faster planning (b) less need for forecasting (c) greater attention to contingencies (d)...

When a manager is asked to justify a new budget proposal on the basis of projected activities rather than as an incremental adjustment to the prior year's budget, this is an example of _________.

When a manager is asked to justify a new budget proposal on the basis of projected activities rather than as an incremental adjustment to the prior...

Having a clear sexual harassment policy won't help an organization much unless it is accompanied by clear _________ that let all members know for sure how it will be implemented.

Having a clear sexual harassment policy won't help an organization much unless it is accompanied by clear _________ that let all members know for sure...

_____ planning identifies alternative courses of action that can be quickly taken if problems occur with the original plan.

_____ planning identifies alternative courses of action that can be quickly taken if problems occur with the original plan. (a) Benchmark (b) Participatory (c)...

As a first step to help implement her firm'sstrategic plans, the CEO of a business firm would want marketing, manufacturing, and finance executives to develop clear and appropriate _________.

As a first step to help implement her firm'sstrategic plans, the CEO of a business firm would want marketing, manufacturing, and finance executives...

The first step in the planning process is to _________.

The first step in the planning process is to _________. (a) decide how to get where you want to go (b) define your objectives (c) identify possible...

The benefits of planning often include _________.

The benefits of planning often include _________. (a) improved focus (b) less need for controlling (c) more accurate forecasts (d) guaranteed success Answer:...

Planning is best described as the process of _________ and _________.

Planning is best described as the process of _________ and _________. (a) developing premises about the future; evaluating them (b) measuring results;...

The last step in the decision-making process is to _________.

The last step in the decision-making process is to _________. (a) choose a preferred alternative (b) evaluate results (c) find and define the problem (d)...

Personal creativity drivers include creativity skills, task expertise, and _________.

Personal creativity drivers include creativity skills, task expertise, and _________. (a) strategic opportunism (b) management support (c) organizational...

You go to your boss and ask for a pay raise. She says: "Well, let's take a look first at what you are making now." The risk you face in this situation is that your boss's decision will be biased because of _________.

You go to your boss and ask for a pay raise. She says: "Well, let's take a look first at what you are making now." The risk you face in this situation...

Which decision-making error is most associated with the old adage: "If you don't succeed, try and try again"?

Which decision-making error is most associated with the old adage: "If you don't succeed, try and try again"? (a) Satisficing (b) Escalating commitment (c)...

A manager who decides against hiring a new employee that just graduated from Downstate University because the last person hired from there turned out to be a low performer is falling prey to _________ error.

A manager who decides against hiring a new employee that just graduated from Downstate University because the last person hired from there turned out...

In which decision environment does a manager deal with probabilities regarding possible courses of action and their consequences?

In which decision environment does a manager deal with probabilities regarding possible courses of action and their consequences? (a) Risk (b) Certainty (c)...

A common mistake made by managers facing crisis situations is _________.

A common mistake made by managers facing crisis situations is _________. (a) trying to get too much information before responding (b) relying too...

One reason why certainty is the most favorable environment for problem solving is because the problems can be addressed by using _________ decisions.

One reason why certainty is the most favorable environment for problem solving is because the problems can be addressed by using _________ decisions. (a)...

The _________ decision model views managers as making optimizing decisions, whereas the _________ decision model views them as making satisficing decisions.

The _________ decision model views managers as making optimizing decisions, whereas the _________ decision model views them as making satisficing decisions. (a)...

Costs, benefits, timeliness, and _________ are among the recommended criteria for evaluating alternative courses of action in the decision making process.

Costs, benefits, timeliness, and _________ are among the recommended criteria for evaluating alternative courses of action in the decision making process. (a)...

When the members of a special task force are asked to develop a proposal for hitting very aggressive targets for the international sales of a new product, this problem most likely requires a _________ decision.

When the members of a special task force are asked to develop a proposal for hitting very aggressive targets for the international sales of a new product,...

The first step in the decision-making process is to _________.

The first step in the decision-making process is to _________. (a) generate a list of alternatives (b) assess the costs and benefits of each alternative (c)...

If a manager approaches problems in a rational and analytical way, trying to solve them in step-by-step fashion, he or she is well described as a/an _________.

If a manager approaches problems in a rational and analytical way, trying to solve them in step-by-step fashion, he or she is well described as a/an...

A problem is a discrepancy between a/an _________ situation and a desired situation.

A problem is a discrepancy between a/an _________ situation and a desired situation. (a) unexpected (b) risk (c) actual (d) uncertain Answer:...

A manager who is reactive and works hard to address problems after they occur is described as a _________.

A manager who is reactive and works hard to address problems after they occur is described as a _________. (a) problem seeker (b) problem solver (c)...

What organizational stakeholder would most likely get top priority attention if a corporate board is having a serious discussion regarding how the firm could fulfill its obligations in respect to sustainable development?

What organizational stakeholder would most likely get top priority attention if a corporate board is having a serious discussion regarding how the firm...

In a social responsibility audit of a business firm, positive behaviors meeting which of the following criteria would measure the highest level of commitment to socially responsible practices?

In a social responsibility audit of a business firm, positive behaviors meeting which of the following criteria would measure the highest level of commitment...

An amoral manager _________.

An amoral manager _________. (a) always acts in consideration of ethical issues (b) chooses to behave unethically (c) makes ethics a personal goal (d)...

The triple bottom line of organizational performance would include measures of financial, social, and _________ performance.

The triple bottom line of organizational performance would include measures of financial, social, and _________ performance. (a) philanthropic (b)...

A proponent of the classical view of corporate social responsibility would most likely agree with which of these statements?

A proponent of the classical view of corporate social responsibility would most likely agree with which of these statements? (a) Social responsibility...

Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?

Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it?  A) a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that...

Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell?

Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell?  A) enzymatic shortening of...

Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following?

Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following?  A)...

Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind?

Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which...

Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by

Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by  A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways. B) activating translation of certain mRNAs. C)...

In eukaryotes, general transcription factors

In eukaryotes, general transcription factors  A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes. B) bind to other proteins...

During DNA replication,

During DNA replication,  A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication. B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups,...

Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are

Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are  A) DNA methylation and histone amplification. B) DNA amplification...

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore,...

Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of

Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of  A) genetic mutation. B) chromosomal rearrangements. C) karyotypes. D)...

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to  A) be replicating nearly continuously. B) be unwinding in preparation...

Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells?

Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells?  A) Genes are...

There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant?

There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of...

In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP?

In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What...

If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect to be a measurable effect?

If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration,...

In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?

In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?  A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production...

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways?

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways?  A) organizing...

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell?

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing...

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur? A) A corepressor must be present. B) RNA polymerase and the active...

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon  A) occurs continuously in the cell. B) starts when the pathway's substrate is...

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when  A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose. B) the cyclic AMP levels are low. C)...

A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in

A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in  A) continuous transcription of the...

Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation?

Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation?  A) inducer B) promoter C)...

Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator?

Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator?  A) ubiquitin B)...

A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes?

A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes?  A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) ubiquitin E) corepressor Answer:...

Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?

Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?  A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor Answer:...

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is  A) permanently turned on. B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth...

Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism? A) a nucleotide-pair substitution B) a deletion of...

Which component is not directly involved in translation?

Which component is not directly involved in translation? A) mRNA B) DNA C) tRNA D) ribosomes E) GTP Answer:...

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?  A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus. B) Nucleotides may be added at...

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is  A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon. B) complementary to the corresponding triplet...

Which of the following is not true of a codon?

Which of the following is not true of a codon?  A) It consists of three nucleotides. B) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon. C)...

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until  A) the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter. B) several...

A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already.

A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the...

The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer.

The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer.  You add polynucleotide phosphorylase...

If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme B would be capable of growing on which of the following media?

If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme B would be capable of growing on which of the following media? A)...

If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media?

If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media?  A)...

A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?  A) an accumulation of A and no...

When the genome of a particular species is said to include 20,000 protein-coding regions, what does this imply?

When the genome of a particular species is said to include 20,000 protein-coding regions, what does this imply?  A) There are 20,000 genes. B)...

In order for a eukaryotic gene to be engineered into a bacterial colony to be expressed, what must be included in addition to the coding exons of the gene?

In order for a eukaryotic gene to be engineered into a bacterial colony to be expressed, what must be included in addition to the coding exons of the...

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication?

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication?  A) It uses RNA polymerase. B)...

Which of the following is true of transcription in domain Archaea?

Which of the following is true of transcription in domain Archaea?  A) It is regulated in the same way as in domain Bacteria. B) There is only...

Gene expression in the domain Archaea in part resembles that of bacteria and in part that of the domain Eukarya. In which way is it most like the domain Eukarya?

Gene expression in the domain Archaea in part resembles that of bacteria and in part that of the domain Eukarya. In which way is it most like the domain...

Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?

Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?  A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B)...

Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?  A) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic...

If a protein is coded for by a single gene and this protein has six clearly defined domains, which number of exons below is the gene likely to have?

If a protein is coded for by a single gene and this protein has six clearly defined domains, which number of exons below is the gene likely to have?  A)...

Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change?

Which of the following mutations is most likely to cause a phenotypic change?  A) a duplication of all or most introns B) a large inversion...

The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in

The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in A) a base-pair substitution. B)...

Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein?

Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein?  A) a base substitution B)...

Which of the following DNA mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies?

Which of the following DNA mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies?  A) a base-pair deletion B) a codon substitution C)...